Download Oral Radiology- Physics MCQs | Dental MCQs

 Download Oral Radiology- Physics MCQs

Download Oral Radiology- Physics MCQs | Dental MCQs


Download Oral Radiology- Physics MCQs For NBDE/NDEB/ADC/ORE/MDS Exams. Available in PDF and PPT Format. Download Now.

Oral Radiology Physics MCQs Practice

1.    Which statement BEST describes matter?
·       Composed of electrically neutral atoms.
·       May be subdivided by chemical methods.
·       Anything that has mass and occupies space.
·       Contains inner structures that can be divided.


2.    Which nucleus component of the atom determines the identity of the element?
·       The number of quarks.
·       The number of protons.
·       The number of leptons.
·       The number of neutrons.


3.    What determines the atomic mass of an atom?
·       Force carrier particles.
·       Quarks, both up and down.
·       Orbital strength of the electrons.
·       Total number of protons and neutrons.


4.    The Quantum Mechanical Model describes contemporary understanding of the
·       structure of the nucleus.
·       force carrier particles.
·       arrangement of electrons in an atom.
·       fundamental matter particles and corresponding antiparticles.


5.    Atoms have a maximum number of how many known orbitals?
·       5.
·       7.
·       10.
·       12.


6.    Which statement BEST describes the amount of energy required to remove an electron from a given orbital?
·       Exceeds the electrostatic force of attraction.
·       Magnitude related to greater distance from nucleus.
·       Lost energy in the form of electromagnetic radiation.
·       Lowest principal quantum number, then lowest angular momentum.


7.    The specific balance between the positively charged nucleus and the surrounding negatively charged electrons is called
·       force carrier particles.
·       characteristic radiation.
·       electron binding energy.
·       electromagnetic radiation.


8.    The process resulting in the disruption of the electrical neutrality of the atom is called
·       ionization.
·       particulate radiation.
·       radioactivity.
·       electromagnetic radiation.


9.    Loosely bound electrons can be displaced by which low energy radiation?
·       Infrared.
·       Ultraviolet.
·       Visible light.
·       Microwave.


10.  Which type of particle is used in the treatment of skin cancers?
·       γ.
·       χ.
·       α.
·       β.


11.  Linear energy transfer (LET) of particulate radiation refers to
·       conversion state.
·       rate of loss of energy.
·       ionization capabilities.
·       penetration ability of radioactivity.


12.  Examples of electromagnetic radiation include all EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
·       Visible light.
·       b.      Radio waves.
·       c.       MR imaging.
·       d.      Beta particles.


13.  Bundles of energy are called
·       photons.
·       b.      radioactive.
·       c.       wave theory.
·       d.      electron volts.


14.  The amount of energy acquired by one electron accelerating through a potential difference of 1 volt is called the
·       electron volt.
·       b.      linear energy transfer.
·       c.       radioactivity potential.
·       d.      wavelength to energy relationship.


15.  Which is a property of electromagnetic waves?
·       Cause ionization.
·       b.      Have mass and weight.
·       c.       Travel at the velocity of light in a vacuum.
·       d.      Do not cause biologic changes in living cells.


16.  Which unit is typically used to characterize low-energy photons such as radio waves?
·       Energy.
·       b.      Direction.
·       c.       Frequency.
·       d.      Wavelengths.


17.  Which are the primary components of an x-ray machine?
·       Cathode and anode.
·       b.      Tube head and filters.
·       c.       Control panel and collimator.
·       d.      X-ray tube and power supply.


18.  Which component of the x-ray machine is necessary in order to generate and accelerate electrons?
·       Focal spot.
·       b.      Power supply.
·       c.       Tube vacuum.
·       d.      Focusing cup.


19.  Which is the source of electrons within the x-ray tube?
·       Anode.
·       b.      Filament.
·       c.       Control panel.
·       d.      Focusing cup.


20.  The number of electrons emitted is determined by the
·       thermal conductor.
·       b.      high-voltage source.
·       c.       temperature of the filament.
·       d.      material composing the filament.


21.  The focusing cup is made of
·       copper.
·       b.      granite.
·       c.       tungsten.
·       d.      molybdenum.


22.  Which is the purpose of the target in an x-ray tube?
·       Remove generated heat.
·       b.      Stop production of electrons.
·       c.       Convert electrons into x-ray photons.
·       d.      Aim the electrons toward the area to be imaged.


23.  All are characteristics of ideal target material EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
·       High melting point.
·       b.      High vapor pressure.
·       c.       High atomic number.
·       d.      High thermal conductivity.


24.  Copper and which other component of the x-ray machine tube head dissipates heat?
·       Insulating oil.
·       b.      Metal housing.
·       c.       Glass envelope.
·       d.      Electronic focusing cup.


25.  Which is the purpose of a rotating anode?
·       Increase production of x-rays.
·       b.      Decrease number of electrons.
·       c.       Eliminate need for angled target.
·       d.      Dissipate heat from small focal spot.


26.  Which type of x-ray machine utilizes a stationary anode?
·       Intraoral.
·       b.      Tomographic.
·       c.       Cephalometric.
·       d.      Medical computed tomography.


27.  The flow of electrons from the cathode filament, across the tube to the anode, and then back to the filament is called the
·       voltage.
·       b.      tube current.
·       c.       x-ray production.
·       d.      filament transformer.


28.  Which x-ray machine control regulates the filament temperature?
·       On/off switch.
·       b.      Exposure time.
·       c.       Milliamperage (mA).
·       d.      Kilovolt peak (kVp).


29.  Which x-ray machine control converts the primary voltage from the input source into the desired secondary voltage?
·       On/off switch.
·       b.      Exposure time.
·       c.       Milliamperage (mA).
·       d.      Kilovolt peak (kVp).


30.  Which is an advantage of a constant-potential x-ray machine over a self-rectifying x-ray machine, given a voltage and radiographic density setting?
·       Lower patient radiation dose.
·       b.      Increased radiation production.
·       c.       More efficient use of electricity.
·       d.      Effective use of inverse voltage.


31.  Which x-ray machine control limits the duration of x-ray production?
·       On/off switch.
·       b.      Exposure time.
·       c.       Milliamperage (mA).
·       d.      Kilovolt peak (kVp).


32.  How many impulses of radiation equivalent occur in a one-fourth (1 4 ) second exposure?
·       9.
·       b. 15.
·       c. 20.
·       d. 30.


33.  Which is the approximate heat storage capacity for anodes in dental x-ray tubes?
·       5 kHU.
·       b.      15 kHU.
·       c.       20 kHU.
·       d.      30 kHU.


34.  Which factor determines the interval between successive x-ray exposures?
·       kVp.
·       b.      Exposure time.
·       c.       Heat dissipation.
·       d.      Number of electrons.


35.  Which is the primary form of radiation produced from an intraoral x-ray tube?
·       Particulate.
·       b.      Secondary.
·       c.       Characteristic.
·       d.      Bremsstrahlung.


36.  When an electron from the filament directly hits the nucleus of a target atom, which entity is produced?
·       New atom.
·       b.      Single x-ray photon.
·       c.       Decelerated electron.
·       d.      Characteristic radiation.


37.  Which statement does NOT explain the continuous spectrum of x-ray photons?
·       Accelerated electrons form characteristic radiation.
·       b.      Deflected electrons give up varying amounts of energy.
·       c.       Electrons striking the target have varying levels of kinetic energy.
·       d.      Electrons participate in many bremsstrahlung interactions before losing all their kinetic energy.


38.  Which occurs when an electron is ejected from its orbital by an incident electron?
·       Particulate radiation.
·       b.      Secondary radiation.
·       c.       Characteristic radiation.
·       d.      Bremsstrahlung radiation


39.  Doubling the exposure time will result in which occurrence?
·       Doubling the range of photon energies.
·       b.      Doubling the number of photons generated.
·       c.       Decreasing by half the x-ray emission spectrum.
·       d.      Decreasing by half the number of electrons produced.


40.  The beam intensity is affected by all factors EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
·       Collimation.
·       b.      Exposure time.
·       c.       Tube current (mA).
·       d.      Tube voltage (kVp).


41.  Which statement BEST describes the half-value layer (HVL)?
·       Inherent filtration used to decrease beam intensity by one half.
·       b.      Increased beam intensity to compensate for one half reduction due to distance.
·       c.       Thickness of absorber necessary to reduce the number of x-ray photons by one half.
·       d.      Total filtration necessary to compensate for increased number of electrons produced.


42.  Which is the purpose of dental x-ray machine filtration?
·       Decrease beam intensity.
·       b.      Reduce the size of the x-ray beam.
·       c.       Regulate the shape of the x-ray beam.
·       d.      Eliminate low-energy photons.


43.  According to government regulations, the total filtration for a dental x-ray machine set at 69 kVp should be
·       mm.
·       b.      1.5 mm.
·       c.       2.0 mm.
·       d.      2.5 mm.


44.  Which is the purpose of collimation of the x-ray beam?
·       Direct photons.
·       b.      Intensify beam.
·       c.       Reduce exposure area.
·       d.      Adjust for source-to-point distance.


45.  If the source-to-point distance is increased, then which adjustment should be made to ensure consistent image density?
·       Increase kVp.
·       b.      Decrease mA.
·       c.       Increase exposure time.
·       d.      Decrease added filtration.


46. If a dose of 2 Gy is measured at a distance of 4 m, then which is the dose found at 2 m?
·       0.25 Gy
·       b. 0.50 Gy
·       c. 4 Gy
·       d. 8 Gy


47.  During patient exposure, absorption interactions of photons will do all EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
·       Cease to exist.
·       b.      Ionize absorber atoms.
·       c.       Produce a homogenous beam.
·       d.      Convert energy into ejected electron energy.


48.  During patient exposure, which type of beam attenuation occurs MOST frequently?
·       Coherent scattering.
·       b.      Compton scattering.
·       c.       Photoelectric absorption.
·       d.      Bremsstrahlung radiation.


49.  A photoelectric interaction is MOST LIKELY to occur when photons interact with which tissue?
·       Bone.
·       b.      Dentin.
·       c.       Soft tissue.
·       d.      Tooth pulp.


50.  The probability of a Compton interaction is directly proportional to which entity?
·       Source-to-point distance.
·       b.      Electron density of the absorber.
·       c.       Third power of the atomic number of the absorber.
·       d.      Interaction of a low-energy incident photon with an outer electron.


51.  The absorption of the x-ray beam depends upon all factors EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
·       Energy of beam.
·       b.      Density of absorber.
·       c.       Thickness of absorber.
·       d.      Half-value layer of beam.
52.  Determining the quantity of radiation exposure is called
·       filtration.
·       b.      dosimetry.
·       c.       ionization.
·       d.      K-edge absorption.


53.  A measure of the capacity of radiation to ionize air is called
·       exposure.
·       b.      absorbed dose.
·       c.       equivalent dose.
·       d.      radioactivity level.


54.  Which unit is used to compare the high linear energy transfer (LET) of particulate radiations to a lower-LET radiation such as x-rays?
·       Exposure dose.
·       b.      Absorbed dose.
·       c.       Equivalent dose.
·       d.      Effective dose.


55.  Which unit is used to compare the risk of radiation exposure of one part of the body to another part?
·       Exposure dose.
·       b.      Absorbed dose.
·       c.       Equivalent dose.
·       d.      Effective dose.


56.  The traditional unit called radiation absorbed dose (rad) is expressed in the SI system as
·       gray (Gy).
·       b.      sievert (Sv).
·       c.       becquerel (Bq).
·       d.      coulomb/kilogram (C/kg).

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